# Avionics MCQs – Phases of Flight

1 - Question

What is the speed at which the takeoff is aborted when there is an engine failure?
a) Decision speed
b) Stall speed
c) Rotational speed
d) Takeoff speed
Explanation: At any speed greater than the decision speed, takeoff is not aborted even when there is an engine failure. Stall speed is lower than the decision speed and hence the takeoff is aborted.

2 - Question

The distance the aircraft has to cover in the ground to achieve takeoff speed is called?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
Explanation: The distance the airplane has to cover in the ground before it can lift off is called the ground roll and it varies from aircraft to aircraft. Generally, bigger aircraft have a larger ground roll distance. This is the reason why huge aircraft need longer runways.

3 - Question

The distance the aircraft climbs to clear an obstacle of particular height during takeoff is called as?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
Explanation: The extra distance the aircraft covers airborne but before it covers an obstacle of particular height is called airborne distance. Airborne distance is also added with the ground roll to give the total takeoff distance.

4 - Question

What is the takeoff clearance height for a military aircraft?
a) 50ft
b) 35ft
c) 20ft
d) 100ft
Explanation: The height that the aircraft must cover during the airborne distance is different for different aircraft depending upon their usage. The height of the obstacle is generally specified to be 50ft for military aircraft and 35ft for commercial aircraft.

5 - Question

The velocity at which yawing motion can be produced by rudder deflection while the aircraft is on the ground is called _______
a) Ground roll speed
b) Ground control speed
c) Minimum control speed on the ground
d) Control speed
Explanation: Minimum control speed on the ground is the minimum speed at which enough aerodynamic force can be generated in the vertical fin by rudder deflection while the aircraft is still rolling on the ground to produce a yawing moment on the aircraft.

6 - Question

Departure and approach are subphases of what?
a) Landing phase
b) Takeoff phase
c) Terminal phase
d) Surface phase
Explanation: The terminal phase consists of the departure and the approach phase. Departure starts when the aircraft is in the ground and ends when it is out of the terminal area. The approach starts when the aircraft enters the terminal control area and ends when the aircraft intercepts the landing aids at approach fix.

7 - Question

The height at which approach is aborted when the runway is not in sight is called as?
a) Decision height
b) Approach altitude
c) Clearance altitude
d) Landing altitude
Explanation: Decision altitude is the altitude above the runway at which the approach must be aborted if the runway is not sight. Decision height published for each runway at each airport.

8 - Question

A non-precision approach has electronic guidance in only in the horizontal direction.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: A non-precision approach has electronic guidance in only in the horizontal direction. An aircraft executing a non-precision approach must abort if the runway is not visible at minimum descent altitude, which is typically 700ft above the runway.

9 - Question

What instrument is used to measure the aircraft’s altitude during the approach phase?
a) Pressure altimeter
c) Sound altimeter
d) Infrared altimeter
Explanation: A radio altimeter can accurately measure the altitude of an aircraft and works on the radar principle. Typically, radio altimeters provide accurate altitude measurements till 5000ft and are used only during takeoff and landing.

10 - Question

Which of the following conditions does not lead to missed approaches?
a) Poor visibility
b) Excess fuel
c) Alignment with runway
d) Traffic